Question 1:
The laws made by the legislative arm of the local government is commonly referred to as
A. Council laws
B. Municipal laws
C. Bye-Laws
D. Subsidiary legislation
E. Edicts
The correct answer is (C)
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Question 2:
One major characteristics of customary law in Nigeria is that it is
A. Largely written
B. Similar in content to English law
C. Amenable to the current conditions and lifestyles of the people
D. Judge-made law and a declaration of the court
E. Rigid and inflexible
The correct answer is (C)
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Question 3:
The tort committed whenever a person willfully or recklessly makes a statement with the intention that another person shall act on it and thereby suffer damage is known as the tort of
A. Trespass to person
B. Slander
C. Libel
D. Defamation
E. Deceit
The correct answer is (E)
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Question 4:
The arrangement of superior courts in ascending order in Nigeria is as follows
A. High Court, Court of Appeal and the Supreme Court
B. Supreme Court, High Court and Magistrate Court
C. Court of Appeal, Supreme Court and High Court
D. Magistrate Court, District Court and Customary Court of Appeal
E. Circuit Court, Regional Court and House of Lords
The correct answer is (A)
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Question 5:
The major characteristic of a tort is that
A. It is an offence with criminal consequences
B. The parties to an action in tort are the State and the Accused/Defendant
C. Redress for its breach lies in the prosecution, conviction and sentencing of offenders
D. It is a breach of personal duties fixed by law
E. Its establishment in court requires proof beyond unreasonable doubt
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 6:
Which of the following is NOT true of a contract?
A. An agreement, which will be enforced by the courts
B. A situation which the law will recognise as affecting the legal rights and duties of the parties
C. A promise or set of promises, which the law will enforce
D. An agreement lacking in the meeting of minds or what is commonly known as consensus ad idem
E. A legally binding agreement between two or more persons by which rights are acquired by one or more, to act or forbear from acting
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 7:
An offer could be terminated in the following ways, EXCEPT by
A. Acceptance
B. Revocation
C. Lapse of time
D. Death of one of the parties
E. Failure of a condition precedent to the offer
The correct answer is (A)
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Question 8:
Contractual arrangements that are prohibited by statutes or common law are regarded as
A. Mutual contract
B. Partly unenforceable contract
C. Illegal contract
D. Non-illegal contract
E. Partly enforceable contract
The correct answer is (C)
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Question 9:
A relationship in which a person commissions another person to act on his behalf is called
A. A simple contract devoid of consideration
B. Sale of services contract
C. Sale of goods contract
D. A contract of agency
E. A contract of hire purchase
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 10:
A voidable contract is a contract
A. That has no legal effect
B. Of a sale of goods
C. For services by an independent contractor
D. Generally recognisable at law and given effect to subject to certain conditions
E. That is destitute of all legal rights
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 11:
A contract to oust the jurisdiction of the courts is a
A. Void contract to the extent of its ouster clause
B. Contract vitiated by mistake
C. Contract in restraint of trade
D. Contract to commit crime, tort or fraud
E. Contract involving maintenance or champerty
The correct answer is (A)
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Question 12:
The rights of an agent in an agency relationship include all of the following, EXCEPT, right
A. To remuneration
B. To indemnity
C. To have his lawful actions ratified by the principal
D. To make secret profit
E. Of lien over the goods of his principal for moneys due to him
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 13:
Which of the following is NOT a duty of an agent?
A. Duty to follow the principal’s instructions
B. Duty to act in good faith and avoid conflict of interests
C. Duty to exercise care and skill professed by him
D. Duty to delegate his authority whether or not expressly authorised by his principal
E. Duty to render an account to the principal as and when due
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 14:
In a contract for sale of goods, goods which have been identified and agreed on at the time of the contract are
A. Unascertained goods
B. Specific goods
C. Ostensible goods
D. General goods
E. Goods in transaction
The correct answer is (B)
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Question 15:
Goods which the seller is obligated to manufacture or acquire after the contract of sale is made are
A. Ascertained goods
B. Bubble goods
C. Future goods
D. Existing goods
E. Baggage goods
The correct answer is (C)
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Question 16:
The contract of hire purchase may be terminated by
A. A unilateral decision of the hirer to rescind the contract
B. Repudiation by the aggrieved party who may sue for breach
C. Failure of owner to furnish information about the goods
D. Failure on the part of the hirer to accept the goods
E. Payment by the hirer of the instalments as and when due
The correct answer is (B)
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Question 17:
In a hire purchase contract, supervening circumstances of force majeure, which are beyond the control of the parties, has the effect of
A. Termination
B. Extension
C. Commencement
D. Performance
E. Resignation
The correct answer is (A)
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Question 18:
The obligation of the worker, to maintain absolute silence over commercial information received in the workplace, is referred to as employee’s duty to
A. Keep his employer’s confidential information and trade secrets
B. Obey employer’s lawful orders
C. Render personal service and not delegate his duties without the consent of the employer
D. Exercise professional skill and diligence
E. Not make secret profits from the employment relationship
The correct answer is (A)
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Question 19:
A breach of a term of insurance contract that entitles the claimant to payment of damages without rendering the transaction void is known as a
A. Breach of condition
B. Breach of warranty
C. Breach of both a condition and warranty
D. Principle of subrogation
E. Principle of contribution
The correct answer is (C)
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Question 20:
A partnership business entered into for a single venture or undertaking stands dissolved at the
A. Conclusion of that venture or undertaking
B. Expiration of the fixed term
C. Bankruptcy or death of any partner
D. Submission to arbitration
E. Execution of a deed of dissolution
The correct answer is (A)
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Question 21:
One of the circumstances under which a court can make order for the dissolution of a partnership business is when
A. The membership of a general partnership exceeds ten
B. A partner in a partnership business becomes a lunatic by inquisition
C. A general partnership is unregistered
D. A partnership business has not more than three partners
E. When partners apply the Partnership Act, 1890 to the partnership
The correct answer is (B)
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Question 22:
The process by which a company is dissolved or liquidated is called
A. Majority rule
B. Solubility
C. Winding up
D. Termination of corporate appointment
E. Resolution for dissolution
The correct answer is (C)
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Question 23:
Which type of resolution is required for members’ winding up
A. Special resolution
B. Hybrid resolution
C. Official resolution
D. Ordinary resolution
E. Consensus resolution
The correct answer is (A)
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Question 24:
Judicial proceedings for the winding up of a company must be commenced before the
A. Magistrates Court
B. State High Court
C. Court of Appeal
D. Federal High Court
E. Regional High Court
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 25:
Registration of business name is compulsory for an individual
A. Applying for registration as a director of a registered company
B. Directed by the Registrar of Business Names
C. Where the business name proposed to be registered is a name other than that of the state where the business is to be situated
D. If the business name does not consist of the individual’s true surname without any addition other than his true forenames or initials
E. If the proposed business name does not consist of the names of the country of operation
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 26:
The obligation of a banker to honour a cheque of the customer ceases upon a
A. Countermand
B. Notation
C. Calligraphic instruction on a cheque leaf
D. Cursive handwriting on a cheque leaf
E. Novation
The correct answer is (A)
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Question 27:
Before closing his account, a banker owes a customer a/an
A. Implied duty
B. Reasonable notice
C. No notice
D. Regular updates
E. Immediate notice
The correct answer is (B)
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Question 28:
ONE of the ways by which a party obliged to honour a negotiable instrument may be discharged is through
A. Non-payment of the instrument
B. Protest on non-payment
C. Any material alteration
D. Dishonour by non-acceptance
E. An accommodation bills
The correct answer is (C)
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Question 29:
A bill, which was previously dishonoured by a person who was not originally liable, but is subsequently honoured is said to be discharged by
A. Cancellation
B. Negotiation
C. Alteration
D. Acceptance
E. Renunciation
The correct answer is (D)
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Question 30:
Which of the following is NOT eligible for appointment as a trustee?
A. An infant
B. A public trustee
C. A trust corporation
D. An original trustee
E. A beneficiary
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